Saturday, July 28, 2012
Wednesday, July 25, 2012
Saturday, July 21, 2012
Friday, July 20, 2012
Tuesday, July 17, 2012
Differentiate between guttation and transpiration.
1. Differentiate between guttation and transpiration.(2003)
Guttation : Plants which grow in moist, warm soil undre humid conditions often have droplets of water along the margin' of their leaves. rhis is also a form of water loss from the plants. The loss of water from the leaves in the form of water drops through specialized structures is called guttation. When water absorption greatly exceeds transpiration, water comes out through specialized structures called hydathodes. Hydathodes are. generally found at the tip of the veins of leaves which exhibit guttation. The guttation liquid is out pure water..
Transpiration The process of loss of water from the plants in the form of vapour through stomata is known as transpiiation. Stomata are distributed throughout the leaves, and they control the rate of transpirsrtion by closing and opening mechanisms. Transpirational water is pure in nature
2. What is water potential ?
The difference between the free energy of water molecules of pure water and the energy of water In any other system in solution or plant is called water profential. It is denoted by the letter Psi (sp ). Water potential is measured in 'bars'. Psi of pure water is zero. the common measurement unit of water potential is pascal, Pa (1 megapascal, Mpa = 10 bars).
3. Define-DPD.
Diffusion pressure of a solution is always lower han its pure solvent. The difference between the diffusion pressure of the solution and its solvent at a particular temperature aria atmospheric-conditions is ~ calledDPD. DPD or diffusion pressure deficit is equal in quantity (free energy) to water potential but opposite in sign.
21. Name the three theories of water translocation.
The three theories are (1) Root pressure theory
(2) Capillary theory and (3) Cohesion theory.
22. What is plasmolysis ?
The shrinkage of vacuole and protoplast causing the plasma mernbrance to fold inward and move ,away from the cell wall due to exomsmosis, when the cell is placed in a lypertonic solution is called plasmolysis.
23. What is transpiration ?
Loss of water in the form of watervapour from plant surface to the atmosphere is called transpiration. Transpiration occurs mainly from leavesthrough stomata.
24. What is reverse osmosis ?
By giving additional to an osmotic system the movement of solvent molecules from a region of their lesser 'concentration to their higher concentration occur. This is called reverse osmosis. The process of reverse osmosis is used for removing salts from saline water.
25. Define osmosis.
Osmosis is the movement of water molescules through a semi - permeable membrane from a region of higher concentration of water to a region of lesser concentration when these two are separated by it.
26. What are the chief component factors which affect the water potential in a system ?
Water potential can be expressed as atotal of its individual component ie,. = is + They.,are the effect of solutes, pressure and gravity respectively.
27. What is the importance of imbibition ?
Imbibition helps in the germination of seeds, movement of water from sell to cell and the ripening of seeds. In addition to this it carries out the warping of wooden frames in rainy season.
28. Define root pressure.
The movement of water from the soil into the root hair and then to the xylem cells with lower water potential generates pressure in the root. This pressue is called root pressure. Root pressure pushes the water up the xylem vessels.
2 . What is meant by 'ascent of sap' ?
Water and minerals are conducted upwards in plants against the gravitational force. This upward conduction of water froth the roofs to the aerial organs through the system is termed ascent of sap.
III. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
30. Define the following.
(a) The matric potential (b) Solute potential
(c) Pressure potential
(a) Matric potential is the component of water potential influenced by the presence of matric such as cell wally soil, protoplasm etc.
•(b) Solute potential is the amount by which the water is reduced as a result
of presence of solutes. It is other wise called osmotic potential.
(c) Pressure potential is the pressure exerted by protoplasm on the cell wall (wall pres'sure)
31. What are the internal factors which control the absorption of at r from the soil by the root hair ?
Water absorption takes place mainly by two processes. Active absorption by root pressure and passive absorption by transpiration pull. Root pressure and passive absorption by transpiration pull. Root pressure developed in root cortex pushes water up through the xylem Transpiration of water from leaves causes a pulling force as thp water column is continuous from root to leaves. This also causes upward movement of water.
PLANT - WATER RELATIONS
1. Dry seeds when placed in, water swells up due to:
(a) Osmosis (b) hydrolysis
(c) reverse osmosis (d) imbibition
2. Which one of the following formed during water stress causes the closure of stomata ?
(a) auxin
(c) cytokinin
3. Water potential of pure water is (a) Zero bar
(c) 10 bar
(b) abscisic acid (d) gibberellin
(b) 100 bar (d) 1 bar
4. Water potential ofs leaf tissue will be more negative during.
(a) low transpiration (c) less respiration (b) high transpiration
(d) excessive transpiration
5. Stomata of angiosperms usually do not open during.
(a) moonlight (c) mid night (b) mid day
(d) Hot day
6. In a dry cool day, the rate of tranptration will be:
(a) low
(c) no transpiration
7. Salted mangoes shrink due to : (a) exosmosis
(c) endosmosis
(b) high
(d) minimum
(b) plasmolysis (d)'imbibition
Cohesion theory-of ascent of sap is put for ward by:
(a) Henry. Dixon (b) Melvin Calvin
(c) Dixion and Joley (d) Curtis
10. The chief organ otwater absorption,is :
(a) root cap (b) entire root surface
(c) root hairs (d) root apex
Plants do not absorb water from the soil when - (ar there is less soil CO2
(b) soil temperature below 38° C
(c) there is high solute concentration
(d) atmospheric "temperature above 38 ° C
12. CAM plants could open their stomata during :
(a) day only (b) night only
.(c) even in twilight (d) even in midday
13. D.P.D is equal to : (a) 0.P - W.P (b) 0.P + W.P (c) T.P (d) 0.P
14. The principal pathWay of water transloCation in angiosperms is :
(a) sieve cells (b) sieve tube elements
(c) xylem vessel elements- (d) -xylem and 'phloem
The osmotic movement of water may be prevented by applying a pressure namely :
(a) root pressure (b) wall pressure (d) turgor pressure
(c) osmotic pressure
16. The water which js readily available to plants for absorption by roots is called.
(a) hygroscopic water (b) capillary water (c),atomospheric water (d) gravitational water
17. Guttation occurs through specialised pores called:
(a) stomata (b) lenticels
(c) hydathodes (d) air pores
Entrance Preparation Biology Questions
31. Most suitable theory for ascent of sap is :
(a) transpiration pull and cohesion theory of Dixon and Jolly
(b) pulsation theory of J. C. Bose
(c) relay pump theory of Godleweski
(d) none of the above
32. Active absorption of water creates
(a) positive pressure in the xylem sap of shoot
(b) negaive pressure in the xylem sap of root
(c) positive pressure in the xylem sap of root
(d) negative pressure in the xylem sap of shoot
33. The pressure created in the tracheary elements of the root and which pushes water or sap upwards into the shoot system is known as :
(a) osmotic pressure (b) root pressure
(c) wall pressure (d) turgor pressure
34. The active absorption of Water does not required a direct supply of energy is known as
(a) non osmotic active absorption (b) osmotic active absorption (c) passive water absorption (d) imbibition
35. Metabolic energy is required and roots play a positive role in :
(a) passive mineral absorption (b) active absorption
(c) passive water absorption (d) none of these
36. Cohesion-transpiration pull theory operates only in :
(a) conditions restricting transpiration
(b) passive water absorption
(c) conditions favouring transpiration
(d) active water absorption
37. The plant tissue specialized for vertical transport belongs to :
(a) phloem and cortex (b) medulla and cortex
(c) xylem and phloem (d) xylem and epidermis
38. The oxidation of one NADH2 yields :
(a) 3 ATP (b) 38 ATP (c) 1ATP (d) 2 ATP
39. A molecule of sedoheptulose has carbon atoms numbering :
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 4
40. Emerson effect is associated with
(a) photosynthesis (b) transpiration
(c) respiration (d) salt absorption
41. NADP is converted to NADPH2 by ..... cycle
(a) PS I (b) PS II
(c) dark respiration (d) non cyclic
42. (102 acceptor in C3 plants is
(a) PEP (b) RuBP (c) RUP (d) PAG
43. Magnesium is the major constituent of : (a) nitrogenase enzyme (b) myoglobin (c) chlorophyll (d) ferridoxin
44. One of the plant which has been provided urea but is deficient of Mg will exhibit :
(a) curling of leaves (b) sudden leaf-fall
(c) yellowing of leaves (d) necrosis of shoot tips
45. Which one of the following is a micronutrient ?
(a) Ca (b) Mg (c) N (d) Mn
46. Nickel is an essential part of which of the followings enzymes ?
(a) (I cease (b) Nitrogenase
(c) Nitrate reductase (d) PEP carboxylase
47. The symbiotic association of fungi and algae is called :
(a) I ichen (b) mycrrohiza.
(c) myxomycetes (d) mycoplasma
Biology Entrance test questions
1. Pyruvic acid is formed during:
(a) ornithine cycle. (b) Krebs cycle
(c) glycolysis (d) photosynthesis
2. .Which of the following are essential for formation of ATP ?
(a) Fe and Mo (b) N and P
(c) Fe and P (d) Mg and Mn
3. Why carbohydrates are more efficient inproviding energy than fats and proteins?
(a) Carbohydrates have high molecular weight
(b) They have less oxygen content than fats, therefore, require less molecular oxygen
(c) Fats have less molecular weight
(d) They have more oxygen content and therefore require less mo- lecular oxygen to provide energy.
. Which one of the following can respire in anaerobic conditions? (a) leaves (b) stem (c) roots (d) seeds
5. The value (II R.Q. of a succulent plant at night is :
(a) one (h) more than one (c) infinity (d) zero
o. Last product of food oxidation is :
(a) pyre vita acid (b) citric acid (c) CO2 + H2O (d) oxygen
6. Photorespiration is favoured by :
(a) low light and high 02 (b) low 02 and high CO2
(c) low temperature and high 02 (d) high 02 and low CO2
7. Compensation point is :
(a) when there is enough water just to meet the requirements of plant.
(b) when rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration.
(c) when there is neither photosynthesis nor respiration.
(d) when the entire food synthesized in photosynthesis remains unutilized.
9. Ascent of sap takes place through:
(a) Phloem (b) Cambium
(c) Xylem or xylem vessel element (d) Epidermis
10. Which of the following is a rapid type of absorption?,
(a) Root absorption (b) Active absorption
(c) Salt absorption (d) Passive absorption
11 • Root cap has no role in water absorption because:
(a) It has loosely arranged cells
(b) It has no cells containing chloroplasts
(c) It has no root hairs
(d) It has no direct connection with vascular system
12. The ultimate cause for the movement of water against gravity in a tree is
(a) Imbibiton (b) Photosynthesis
(c) Transpiration (d) Osmosis
. The principal pathways by which water is translocated in angiosperm is
01) Xylem vessel system (b), Xylem and phloem together
(c) Sieve tube members of phloem (d) Sie-ife cells of phloem
14. Transpiration - Cohesion tension theory operates in
(a) Passive absorption (b) Active absorption
(c) Both active and passive (d) None of these
15. Root pressure in a plant is measured by
(a) Barometer (b) Thermometer (c) Photometer
16. Water available to plants is:
(a) Hygroscopic water (b) Crystalline water
(c) Gravitational water (d) Capillary water
17. Water enters into root hairs mainly due to: (a) Atmospheric pressure
(c) Turgor pressure
18. Root pressure is due to:
(a) passive absorption (b) active absorption
(c) increase in transpiration (d) increase in photosynthesis
19. Root pressure can be demonstrated by means of
(a) transpiration (b) guttation (c) wilting (d) exudation
20. The main difference between active and passive dansport across cell membrane is that
(a) active transport occurs more rapidly than pagsive transport
(b) passive transport is non-selective
(c) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across the cell membrane whereas active transport requires metabolic energy
(d) passive transport is confined to anions and active transport is for cations only
21. The most accepted theory for the ascent of sap in plants was put forward by
(a) J.C. Bose (b) Mune (c) Stra.sburger (d) Dixon and Jolly
22. Guttation occurs through:
(a) Hydathodes (b) Stomata (c) Root hairs (d) Flower buds
23. The force of tension - cohesion exceeds root pressure on a:
(a) Foggy morning (b) Rainy day
(c) Sunny day (d) Full moon light
24. Which one of the following is responsible to make water rise inplants,
100 feet tall:
(a) Air pressure (b) Capillary action
(c) Root pressure (d) Passive absorption
25. Imbibition theory of Sachs as explanation for ascent of sap, is wrong
because:
(a) water moves through lumen and not along the walls
(b) It involves expenditure of energy
(c) Sap rises along the walls of living cells.
(d) Cellulose walls of xylem do not show imbibition
26. In active absorption of water:
(a) energy is not used
(b) the photosynthesis provides energy
(c) the root respiration gives energy
(d) the transpiration pull provides force for absorbing water
27. Water is absorbed when outside solution is :
(a) Isotonic (b) Hypotonic
(c) Hypertonic (d) None of these
28. A man applied fertilizers heavily on his lawns then he gave more water. A few days later the grass turned brown because
(a) transpiration rate increased due to excessive water
(b) the roots were killed due to loss of water by osmosis
(c) heavy fertilizers affected photosynthesis
(d) excessive water fertilizer caused diffusion of water in sub soil
water
29. During absorption of water by roots the water potential of cell sap
is lower than that of :
(a) pure water and soil solution
(b) neither pure water nor soil solution
(c)pure water but higher than that of soil solution
(d) soil solution but higher than that of pure water
30. In water logged soil, plants can not grow properly because the soil is
(a) physiologically wet (b) physiologically dry
(d) None of the above
Eng / Medical Entrance Chemistry
32. The angular momentum of an electron in an atomic orbital depends upon:
(a) principal quantum number (b) azimuthalquantum number
(c) magnetic quantum number (d) spin quantum number
33. The designation of a subshell with n = 4 and l = 3 is:
(a) 4s (b) 4p (c) 4d (d) 4f
34. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is allOwed?
(a) n = 2, / 1, m 0, s=+ 1/2 (b) n = 2, / = 2, m = —1, s = — 1/2
(c) n = 2, / = —2, m 1, s 1/2 (d) n = 2, / = 1, m = 0, s = 0
35. The quantum numbers for the electrons present in the valence shell of an element are given below:
n = 2, / = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2. The atom is:
(a) Lithium (b) Beryllium (c) Hydrogen (d) Boron
36. An orbital with l.= 0 is symmetrical about the:
(a) X-axis only (b) Y-axis only
(c) Z-axis only (d) nucleus
37. In Aufbau principle, the word `Aufbau':
(a) represents the name of scientist who developed the principle
(b) is a German word which means "building up"
(c) is related to the energy of the electron
(d) is related to angular momentum of the electron
38. The electronic configuration of 7N14 is
1S2 2s2 2pix 2py1 2pzi and not
2s2 2p2
1s2 2ply . This is accordance with:
(a) Pauli's exclusion principle (b) Hund's rule
(c) Aufbau principle (d) Fajan's rule
39. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired elec- trons?
(a) Cu2+ (b) Cr3+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Fe3+
Labour India Plus Two Digest (Science)
4110111 Wad Plus TWO Digest
10. Which of the following species is diamagnetic?
(a) I' (Z = 22), (b) Zn2+ (Z = 30)
N t
(c) (Z = 28) (d) Ce+ (Z = 24)
i I There is no difference between a 2p and a 3p orbital regarding: (a) shape (b) size (c) energy (d) value of n
11. total number of electrons that can be accommodated in all the
orbitals having principal quantum number 2 and azimuthal quantum number 1 is:
(a) 2 '(b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
In a Potassium atom, electronic energy levels are in the following order:
(a) 4s > 3d (b) 4s > 4p (c) 4s < 3p (d) 4s < 3d
1.1. I i he Planck's constant, h = 6.6 x Js, the de Broglie wavelength of a
panicle having momentum of 3.3 x 10-24 kg ms-1 will be:
0 0 0 0
(a) 0.002 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 2 A (d) 500 A
4). uncertainty in the momentum of an electron is 1.0 x 10-5 kg ms-4.
The uncertainty in its Position will be: (h = 6.62 x 10-34 kg m2 s-')
(b) 1.05 x 10-26 m
(d) 5.25 x 1028 m
.1(). Iliwn -Haber cycle is used to determine:
(a) Electronegativity (b) Lattice energy
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
•1 Which one is the highest melting halide?
(a) NaC1 (b) NaF (c) NaBr
I S. l'he dative bond is present in:
(a) NI13 (b) SO3 (c) PC15 (d) BF3
19. Zeise's salt contains which type of bonds?
(a) Ionic (b) Ionic and covalent
(c) I I ydrogen bonds (d) Ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds
)(I. Which among the following molecules is not flat?
(a)('(,116 (b) C H
2 4 (c) SO3 (d) C2H6
Chemistry Entrance Exam Questions
1. Which of the following is incorrect about SI units?
(a) Energy in joule (b) Force in Newtons
(c) Pressure in Pascals (d) Amount of substance in mol L'
2. Planck's constant has the dimensions of:
(a) force (b) work
(c) angular momentum (d) torque
3. The most abundant element in the earth's crust is:
4. An example of a homogeneous mixture is:
(a) Aluminium (b) Iron (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen
(a) mud (b) sand and water
10 Labour India Plus Two Digest (Science)
I abour India Plus Two Digest
(c) sand and iron filing (d) brass
A mixture of sand and naphthalene can be separated by:
( a) fractional crystallisation (b) chromatography
(c) gravity separation (d) sublimation
N i trogen forms five stable oxides with oxygen of the formula, N20, NO, N20 , N204, N205. The formation of these oxides explains fully the:
(a) Law of definite proportions (b) Law of partial pressures
(c) Law of multiple proportions (d) Law of reciprocal proportions
1. Two metallic oxides contain 27.6% and 30.0% oxygen respectively. I 1- the formula of the first oxide is M304 , that of the second will be: (a) MO (b) MO2 (c) M205 (d) M203
X. One mole of oxygen gas is the volume of:
(a) 1 litre of oxygen at STP (b) 32 litres of oxygen at STP
(c) 22.4 litres of oxygen at STP (d) 6.02 x1023 molecules of oxygen . The number of molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.06g is approximately:
(a) 1021 (b) 2 x102' (c) 3 x 1021 (c) 4 x 1021
10. The total number of electrons present in 1 mole of CO2:
(a) 6.023 x1023 (b) 12 x 6.023 x1023
(c) 22 x 6.023 x1023 (d) 24 x 6.023 x1023
1. Which pair of species have same percentage of carbon?
(a) CH3COOH and C6E11206 (b) CH3COOH and C2H5OH
(c) HCOOCH3 and C12H22011• (d) C6111206 and Ci2H22011
12. The sulphate of an element contains 42.2% element. The equivalent weight would be:
(a) 17.5
(b) 35.0 (c) 60.0 (d) 68.0
1 1. 11* energy is doubled, the wavelength of light radiation will be
( i) W oubled (b) Halved (c) Same (d) None of these
14. If r is the radius of first Bohr orbit of H-atom, then for Li2+ ion,
radius will be:
(a) 3r (b) 9r (c) r/3 (d) r/9
15. The number of d-electrons in Cr (atomic no. = 24) is equal to that of
(a) p-electrons in Al (Z = 13)
(b) p-electrons in K (Z = 19)
(c) d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26)
(d) 3p -electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
16. The radiations from a naturally occurring radioactive substance. as
seen after deflection by a magnetic field in one direction are
(a) Definitely a - rays (b) Definitely -rays
(c) Both a and 3 -rays (d) Either a or 13 -rays
' 17. Elements up to atomic number 103 have been synthesized and stud- ied. If a newly discovered element is found to have an atomic number 106, its electronic configuration will be:
(a) [Rn]5p4, 6d4, 7s2 (b) [Rn]5f14, 6d1, 7s2 7p3
(e) [Rni5f'4, 6d6, 7s° (d) fRni5P4, 6d5, 7s'
18. Zero angular momentum relates to
(a) p orbital (b) s orbital (c) d orbital (d) f orbital
19. Which of the following elements possesses non-spherical outer most orbital?
(a) Li (b) B (c) Be (d) He
20. Cathode rays have:
(a) mass only (b) Charge only
(c) No mass, no charge (d) Mass and charge both
21. Rutherford's scattering experiments led to the discovery of
(a) nucleus
(b) presence of neutrons in the nucleus
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) revolving nature of electrons around the nucleus
22. Which property of the element is whole number?
(a) Atomic mass (b) Mass number
(c) Atomic size (d) Ionisation potential
23. An isotone of 32Ge76 is:
(a) 32Ge" (b)3,As" (c) 34Se" (d) 3,1(el
Supplement
(a) A!3 (b) C (c) 02--
The coloured radiation with lowest energy is:
(a ) Red (b) Blue (c) Green (d) Yellow
'ft I hydrogen spectrum, the series of lines appearing in ultra violet region of electromagnetic spectrum are called :
(:1) I ,y man lines (b) Balmer lines
(c) P fund lines (d) Brackett lines
The wavelength of spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to
(a) the number of electrons undergoing transition
(h) the nuclear charge of the atom
(c) the difference in the energy levels involved in the transition
(d) the velocity of electron undergoing transition
28. The energy of an electron in an atomic orbit of hydrogen like spe- cies depends on:
(a) the principal quantum number only
(h) theprincipal and azimuthal quantum numbers only
(c) the principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers only
(d) the principal, azimuthal, magnetic and spin quantum numbers
29. The splitting of the spectral lines under the influence of magnetic field is called:
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Compton effect
(c) Photoelectric effect (d) Diffraction
When applied, the uncertainty principle has significance in case of
(a) moving train (b) spinning cricket ball
(c) moving a - particle (d) all the above
31. The principal quantum number n describes:
(b) Sub-shell of electron
(a) Shape of orbital
(d) Spin of electron
(c) Main energy shell of electron
alm, India Plus Two Digest
Which of the following has more electrons than neutrons?
(d) F
Engineering Entrance Physics Questions
34. 64 identical drops of thercury are charged simultaneously to the same potential of 10 volts. Assuming the drops to be spherical, if all
the charged drops are made-to combine to form one large drop then its potential will be:
(a) 260 units (b) 320 units(c) 640 units (d) 160 units
35. A parallel plate capacitor having dielectric slab=of Er= 6 is connected across a battery and charged. This dielectric slab is then removed and new dielectric slab of Er= 10 is introduced. The ratio of energy stored in first case to that in second case is:
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 9 : 25(d) 25 : 9
36. The diameter of the plate of a parallel plate condenser is 6 cm. If its capacity is equal to that of a sphere of diameter 200 cm, the separa tion between the plates of the condenser is:
(a)45x10-4m 4.5x (b) 2.25 x 10-4m
(c) 6.75 x 10-4 m (d) 9 x 10-4m
37. There are 10 condensers each of capacity 5 1,,tE The ratio between max. and min. capacity obtained from these condensers will be (a) 25 : 5 (b) 40 : 1(c) 60 : 3 (d) 100 :
38. A hollow metal sphere of radius 30 cm is charged such that the
potential on its surface is 75 V. The potential at the centre of 'the sphere is:
(a) zero (b) 75 V (c) 225 V (d) 8V
40 A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The magnitude of the electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from its centre:
(a) increases as r increases for r < R
(b) decreases as r increases for 0 < r <
(c) decreases as r increases for R < r
(d) is discontinuous at r = R
41. Number of electrons in one coulomb of charge will be: (a) 5.46 x 1029 (b) 6.25 x 1018 (c) 1.6.x 10+19 (d) 9 x 10"
42. A parallel, condenser with oil between the plates (dielectric constant of oil K = 2) has a capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then capacitance of the capacitor becomes:
C
(a) —
(b) (c) 2C (d) C
2
Two capacitors of 2µF and 41.,IF are connected in parallel. A third capacitor of 61,1F is connected in series. The combination is connected across a 12 V battery. The voltage across 2 idtF capacitor is: (a) 2 V (b) 8V (c) 6 V (d) 1 V
44. A technician has only two capacitors. By using these singly, in series or in parallel, he can obtain capacitances of 3 litF, 41,1F, 12 g and 161.iF. The capacitances of these capacitors are
(a) 6µF and 10 (b) 4µF and 12 i„IF
(c) 7µF and 9 (d) 4µF and 16 pf
46. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 106 volt. Its kinetic energy will be:
(a) 1 MeV (b) 2 MeV (c) 4 MeV (d) 8 MeV
47. A hollow insulated conducting sphere is given a positive charge of
* lOktC. What will be the electric field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2 metres?
(a) zero (b) 51.tC m-2 (c) 8AC m'(d) 20ptC m-2
48. The number of lines of force coming out from a positive charge of one coulomb is:
Physics Engineering Entrance Questions
1. Three charges +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length 1 at points distance 0, 1/2 and 1 respectively. What should beQ in order tc make the net force on q to be zero?
(a) —q (b) —2q (c) —q/2 (d) 4q
2. When a body is charged by induction, then the body:
(a) becomes neutral (b) does not lose any charge
(c) loses whole of the charge on it
(d) loses part of the charge on it
3. A given charge situated at a certain distance form an electric dipole in the end on position, experiences a force F. If the distance of charge is double, the force acting on the charge will be:
(a) 2F (b) F/2 (c) F/4 (d) F/8
4. An ebonite rod acquires a negative charge of 3.2 x 10-4° C. The number of excess electrons it has is:
(a) 2 x 109 (b) 2 x 1019 (c) 2 x 10-29 (d) 2 x 1029
5. Each of the two point charges are doubled and their distance is halved. Force of interaction becomes n times, where n is:
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 1/16 (d) 16
6. Two point charges of +21„tC and + 611 C repel each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given an additional charge of — 41,1C, then new force will be:
(a) — 4N (b) +4 N (c) 3 N (d) 48 N
7. Coulomb's law is given by F = kqlq,r n where n is:
(0 1/2 (b) —2 (c) 2 (d) —1/2
8. Two electrons are separated by a distance r metre and have coulomb force F. Two alpha particles separated by 2r metre will have a force equal to:
(a) 2F (b) 3F (c) F/2 (d) F
Labour India Plus Two Digest (Science)
Labour India Plus Two Digest Supplement
9. The ratio of electric force between two electrons to two protons separated by the same distance in air is:
(a) 10° (b) 106 (c) 104 (d) none of the above
10. Two balls carrying charges +71..IC and —51i C attract each other with a force F. If a charge —21.1, C is added to both, the force between them will be:
(a) F (b) 512 (c) 2F (d) zero
11. The ratio of electric force between two protons to the gravitational force between them is of the order of
(a) 1042 (b) 1036 (c) 1029 (d) 1
12. If a charge is moving along the direction of Coulomb's force of an electric field:
(a) work is done by the electric field
(b) energy is used from some outside source
(c) strength of field decreases
(d) energy of the system is decreased
13. A positively charged ball hangs from a silk thread. We put a positive test charge go at a point and measure No, then it can be predicted that the electric field strength E will be:
, F, , F
va) (b) > c) < — (d) none of these
go qo go
14. The surface density of charge on the copper sphere is a. The electric field strength on the surface of the sphere is:
(a) 6 (b) 6/2 (c) 6/2 eo (d) olso
15. Two conducfing spheres of radii ri and r2 are charged to the same surface charge density. The ratio of electric fields near their surface is:
(a) ri2f/d
(b) db.? (c) r /r, (d) 1:1
16. A hollow metallic sphere of radius 10 cm is given a charge of 3.2 x 10-9C. The electric intensity at a point 4 cm from the centre is: (a) 9 x 10-9 V (b) 288'V (c) 2.88 V (d) zero
Supplement
17. Two free protons are separated by a distance of 1A. If they are re-
0
leased, the kinetic energy of each proton when at infinite separation is:
(a) 11.5 x 10-19J (b) 23 x 10-19J
(c) 46 x 10-19J (d) 5.6 x 10-12'J
18. Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2are eqnally charged. The rati® of their potentials is
(a) ri /r2 (b) r2 /r1 (c) ri2/r2 2 (d) 1.2 22
19. Around a stationary charge of +211 C, another charge of —21,1, C is moved once round a circle of radius 5 cm, the amount of work done is
(a) zero (b) 1671/5J (c) 47E/5.1 (d) 811/5J
20. A uniform electric field having a magnitude E0 and direction along the positive x-axis exists. If the potential V, is zero at x = 0, then its value
x = +x will be
(a) V(x) = + xE® (b) V(x) = —xE0
(c) V(x) = —x2E02 (d) V(x) = +x2E02
21. An electron and a proton are situated in a uniform electric field. The ratio of their acceleration will be:
(a) zero (b) unity
(c) ratio of masses of proton and electron
(d) ratio of masses of electron and proton
22. A given charge is situated at a certain distance from an electric dipot, in the end-on-position, experiences a force F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, the force acting on the charge will be
(a) 2F (b) —2 (c) —5 (d) -F-8--
23. The SI unit of the line integral of electrical field is:
(a) NC-1 (b) Nm2C1 (c) JC-1 (d) Vm-1
24. A work of 100 joule is performed in carrying a charge of —5 coulomb from infinity to a particular point in an electrostatic field. Thep oten- tial of this point is: (a) 100 V (b) 5 V
Labour India Plus Two Digest (Science)
(b) 4nr2E (c) 2rtr2E (d) rcr2E
26. A sphere of radius lmencloses a charge of 5µC. Another charge of 51,1C is placed inside the sphere. The net electric flux would be :
(a) double (c) zero
2 Two thin infinite parallel sheets have uniform surface densities of
charge +a and —G. Electric field in the space between the two sheets
is
(a) 6/E0 (b) 6/2 eo (c) 20/60 (d) 46/c0
28. Twoplates are 1 cm apart and potential difference between them is 10 volt. The electric field between the plates is
(a) 10 N/C (I)) 500 N/C (c) 1000 N/C (d) 250 N/C
29. A 800F capacitor is charged at the steady rate of 501.1 Cisec. How long will it take to raise its potential to 10 volt?
(a) 160s (b) 50s (c) lOs (d) 500s
30. Two condensers of capacity 0.3 1.1,F and 0.60 respectively are connected in series The combination is connected across a poten tial of 6 volt. The ratio of energies stored by condensers will be
(a) 1/2 (b) 2 (c) 1/4 (d) 4
it.' Aparallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of
50 pF in air and 105 pF when immersed in oil. The dielectric con- stant of the oil is:
(a) 50/105 (b) I (c) 2.1 (d)
32. Taking earth to be a metallic sphere, its capacity will approxi mately be (Radius of earth = 6400 km)
(a) 6.4 x 106 F (b) 700 F (c) 7001AF (ti) 700 pF
Pollination in plants
41. Write a note on the need and significance of pollination in plants ?
Ans. (i) Pollination is essential for the formation of fruits and viable seeds.
(ii) Pollination adds a bit of auxin which stimulates the ovary to grow and mature into fruits.
(iii) By cross, pollination new varieties of plants can be prepared.
42. What do you understand by double fertilization ?
Ans. Pollen tube carries two males cells. On reaching the embryo sac t bursts.
One male gamete fuses with the egg to from a diploid zygote. it is called syngamy while the other male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus. It is called triple fusion. Syngamy + triple fusion is called double fertilization.
43. Describe the strcture of atypical monosporic embryo sac found in angiosperms ?
Ans. An embryo sac represents the female gametophyte. It has 8 haploid nuclei to begin with. Three nuclei become arranged in egg apparatus towards the micropylar' end. A central large °egg is surrounded by two synergids. Similarly threee nuclei at the opposite or chalazal end form three antipodal cells. Two nuclei come in the middle of embryo sac and are called polar nuclei. They fuse to form a diloid nucleus called secondary nucleus.
44. Give the important characters of emtomophilous flower ? Ans. (i) They produce large, coloured and showy corollas.
(ii) They may develop fragrance to attract the insects.
(iii) Some flowers develop [special structures so as to allure insects to them.
45. Explain the developed. embryo sac ?
Ans. The embryo sac develops from the single surviving megaspore in the nucellus. It increases in size. The nucleus divides mitotically into two nuclei which go to different poles. Each nucleus divides twice to form four nuclei each. Out of them, the three, at the -micropylar end be come organised into an egg apparatus (An egg and two synergids); the three at the chalthal end become arranged into antipodal cells. The remaining two nuclei come in the middle and are called polar nuclei. They fuse to form a diploid nucleus called secondary nucleus. This seven celled structure is called the female gametophyte or embryo sac.
46. Explain the significance of double fertilization ?
Ans. (i) It is necessary for the formation of viable seeds.
(ii) Endosperm develops only after fertilization. So, in case fertilization fails. there is no need for any endospherm and so no energy is wasted.
India events
1. Which of the following was described as 'grave challenge' by Union Health and Family Welfare Minister Ghularn Nabi. Azad in September 2011?
(1) Female foeticide
(2) Infant mortality
(3) Natal mortality
(4) All of the above
2. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)- the country's apex disaster management body -. said in September 2011 that certain buildings may be more prone to earthquakes, especially in high-risk seismic zones. What are those buildings?
(1) Buildings with open ground storey
(2) High level flats in the apartment system
(3) Buildings made without seismic consideration
4) All of the above
3. The Ministry of Railways announced its plans of setting up Station Authority of India on the lines of Airport Authority of India for creation of additional facilities at the stations in September 2011. What is the primary purpose behind these plans?
(1) Passenger comfort
(2) Shore up its finances
(3) Beat airlines
(4) All of the above
4. The Navy, on October 1, 2011, inked the Rs 2,176-crore contract for the manufacture of eight specialized vessels or LCUs (landing craft utility) by the Kolkata-based GRSE shipyard to boost its
(1) Amphibious warfare capabilities
(2) Island protection capabilities
(3) Ma.netivering capabilities
(4) Only 1 and 2
5. The Union Governmen is n October 2011 talked about bringing amendments to the draft National Food Security Bill. The Bill provides for grains entitlement to 75 per. cent of the rural population, with minimum households as 'priority'. What is the percentage of such households that come under 'priority'?
(1) 31 per cent
(2) 42 per cent
(3) 46 per cent
(4) 52 per cent
6. Inaugurating a regional conference on road safety strategy organized by International Road Federation (IRF) in New Delhi on October 3, 2011, Planning Commission member B K Chaturvedi said road deaths and injuries cost India at least
(1) Rs 1 lakh crore per year
(2) Rs 5 lakh crore per year
(3) Rs 2 lakh crore per year
(4) Rs 7.5 lakh crore per year
7. The Centre reconstituted the Inter-State Council (1SC) and its standing committee, incorporating new members in these panels in October 2011. The ISC was set up in
(1) 1947 (2) 1956
(3) 1973 (4) 1990
8. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, on October 7, 2011, promised to set up an expert group to address the "legitimate concerns" of those pro-
testing a nuclear power plant, but he also clearly indicated that the project would go forward. Which nuclear plant is in reference here?
(1) Narora
(2) Kudankulam
(3) Kalpakkam
(4) Kakrapar
9. Human Resource Development Minister Kapil Sibal announced that the government was in the process of setting up the 'National Vocational Educational Qualificational framework,' possibly by 2012, so that students could take up
(I) Vocational studies
(2) Professional courses
(3) Courses according to their interests
(4) Meaningful courses
10. With reference to the government-tightening the norms for television channel licences in October 2011, India has 745 channels already - including 366
(1) News and current affairs channels
(2) Bhakti Channels
(3) Regional language channels
(4) Entertainment channels
11. Which of the following is/are the features of the new draft National Telecom Policy un veiled by Communications Minister Kapil Sibal in New Delhi on October 10, 2011?
(a) It removes national roaming charges
(b) It makes broadband available on demand
(c) It brings in a 'one-nation, one-licence' policy
(d) It allows mobile numbers to be ported to any part of the country
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Both a and b
(2) Only c
(3) All of the above
(4) Only d
Questions in General Knowledge test
32. With relercrice to the discovery oi colony of stromatelites in Northern Ireland in October 2011, whai makes it so interesting?
(a) Until now these structures have been found mainly in warm and often hyper sa- line waters which discourage predators.
(b) The strornatolites in the Giant's Causeway are in a tiny brackish pool, exposed to the violence of waves and easy prey to the animals that are already living amongst them.
Select the correct answer us-lug the codes given below:
(1) Both a and 1.)
(2) Neither a nor b
(3) Only a
(4) Only b
33. The oldest rodent fossils, currising the tiny teeth of mouse-sized and rat-sized animals that lived at least 41 million years ago yet found in South America was unearthed along the Ucayali River near Contamana in October 2011. The country in reference here is (1) Brazil (2) Chile
(3) Peru (4) Uruguay
34. Who became the first person to be mummified for 3,000 years in October 2011, thanks to British scientists who had spent two decades trying to work out how to replicate the secret techniques of the ancient Egyptian embalmers?
(1) Alan Billis
(2) James Crook
(3) Anthony Mozart
(4) Joseph Green
35. A lake hidden beneath three kilometres of ice in the western Antarctic was announced by a team of British scientists in October 2011 to reveal what life on Earth looked like up to a million years ago and narrow down the searth for extraterrestrial life. Which is this lake?
(1) Lake Pearl
(2) Lake Ellsworth
(3) Lake Montana
(4) Lake Enigma
36. The Defenso Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) in the United States claimed in October 2011 that satellites that reach the end of their useful lives are often boosted into a "graveyard" orbit in order to make way for replacements and it proposed a grave-robbing robot that could stitch together parts from these dead satellites to create new ones, avoiding the huge expense of launching components into space. This program of DARPA is known as
(1) Achilles Program
(2) Phoenix Program
(3) Albatross Program
(4) Zenith Program
37. Scientists at Wuhan University in China claimed on October 31, 2011 that they can use to make albumin, a protein found in human blood that is often used for treating burns, traumatic shocks and liver diseases.
(1) Wheat
(2) Soyabean
(3) Rice
(4) Gram
38. A team of 31 scientists from the Indian Institute of Agricultural Research, a bunch of state agricultural universities. and the Banaras Hindu University has sequenced the genome of which plant for the first time in October 2011 ?
(1) Arhar
(2) Gram
(3) Pea
(4) Soyabean
39. The asteroid named 2005YU55 darted between the Earth and moon on November 8, 2011 and its closest approach occurred when it passed within
miles of Earth.
(1) 212,000 (2) 208,000
(3) 204,000 (4) 202,000
40. A Japanese supercomputer, "K Computer" smashed its own record of just over 8 quadrillion calculations by performing 10 quadrillion calculations per second during an experiment in October 2011. This computer has more than
central processing units.
(1) 92,000 (2) 88,000
(3) 94,000 (4) 96,000
41. Tevatron atom smasher, one of the world's most powerful "atom smashers", at the leading edge of scientific discovery for a quarter of a century, was shut down on September 28, 2011. Where was it located in the United States of America?
(1) Irving (2) Illinois
(3) Reno (4) Madison
42. In rare development in Octo ber 2011, a German sky photographer, shot first ever image of fourth-order rainbow. Who is he?
(1) Michael Theusner
(2) Arthur Lyon
(3) Charles Sherrod
(4) Frank Tobin
43. Scientists of which country announced in October 2011 to have developed a surprising use for ordinary salt that they said could help deal with the increasingly quantities of data that companies and individuals are creating and storing by boosting the capacity of computer hard disks by six times?
(1) Japan (2) Singapore
(3) China (4) Russia
44. Archaeopteryx is one of the world's most iconic prehistoric animals - a dinosaur caught in the midst of evolving into a bird,. some 155 million years ago. Its new fossil, complete except for its head, the elev enth Archaeopteryx skeleton ever discovered, was found in
(1) Britain (2) Germany
(3) Italy (4) Mexico
General Knowledge Questions
23. India on September 30, 2011, successfully test fired indigenously developed, Agni II, from the Wheeler Island, off the coastof Orissa, about 200 km from Bhubaneswar. Which range ballistic missile is it?
(1) Short range
(2) Intermediate range
(1) Long range
(4) Escape Velocity range
24. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Agni II which was in news in October 2011?
(1) It can carry a nuclear payload of 1000 kg
(2) Agni missile series being developed by DRDO as a deterrent against nuclear armed neighbours are among India's most. sophs- cleated weapons
(3) India had successfully test-fired a vat iation of Agni H in May 2010
(4) All of the above
25. India successfully flight-tested which missile from Inte-
' grated Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur, near Balasore in Orissa on September 24, 2011? (1) Shourya (2) Dhanush
(3) Surya (4) Prahaar
2b. Which of the following statements regarding India's Shourya Missile which was launched in September 2011 is/are correct?
(1) It is nuclear capable
(2) It is a surface-to-surface missile
(3) It can carry a one tonne nuclear and conventional warhead over 700 kms
(4) All of the above
27. Almost five years after the idea was first -mooted, India on October 5, 2011, unveiled the world's cheapest computer tablet, Aakash. Which of the following ministries of the Union of India unveiled it?
(1) Ministry of Science & Technology
(2) Ministry of Telecommunication
(3) Human Resource Development Ministry
(4) Ministry of Home Affairs
28. Which of the following statements regarding Aakash, the world's cheapest computer tablet, is/are correct?
(1) It came just a week after Amazon created ripples in the tablet market by -unveiling 'Kindle F'ire'•
(2) The first one lakh units procured by the government will be given to students for free
(3) India has a target of delivering one crore computer tablets to students
(4) All of the above
29. The Aakash tablet, unveiled by India in October 2011, has been manufactured in Hyder- abad by a Datawind, in collaboration with Jodhpur-IIT. Datawind is based in
(1) United Kingdom
(2) USA
(3) Canada
(4) Japan
o. Consider the following statements regarding Aakash personal computer unveiled in October 2011:
(a) It works on Android 2.2 operating system and has a seven- inch touchscreen
(b) It is equipped with 256 MB RAM and two USB ports
(c) It has a multimedia player and 180 minutes of battery power
Which of the statements giv-
en above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) All of the above
(2) Only a
(3) Only c
(4) Both a anti b
31. A system crash one year ago forced a second-year engineering student, to devise a portable operating system on cloud, which can solve many problems of travelling professionals, who seek access to secure computers. The MICROS (Mobile In-Curred Revolutionised Operating System) has been developed by
(1) Deepak John
(2) Avinash Sharma
(3) Brajcsh Monga
(4) Aditya Iviatthewa
Science and technology related questions
1. One of the world's most famous radio telescope facilities advertised for a new name and ideas were solicited in October 2011. The Very Large Array (VLA) is a bank of radio telescopes in the USA. Where it located?
(1) New Mexico
(2) Irving
(3) Spokane
(4) Fremont
2. Which of the following statements regarding Roscosmos, the Russian Federal Space Agency, which was in news in October 2011, is/are correct?
(a) It is responsible for the Russian space science program and general aerospace research.
(b) It was previously known as the Russian Aviation and Space Agency.
(c) Headquarters of Roscosmos are located in Moscow.
(d) Main Mission Control
space flight operations cen-
ter is located in a nearby
city of Korolev and Cosmo-
nauts Training Centre
(GCTC) is in Star City. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only a
(2) Both b and c
(3) Only d
(4) All of the above
3. Astronomers, in October 2011, announced to have used the Very Large Telescope (HILT) in Chile to study a fundamental change in the cosmos more than 13 billion years ago. The
scientists studied a series of galaxies through time to determine the pace at which the neutral hydrogen that pervaded the Universe back then was turned into a diffuse gas of
(1) Highly charged particles
(2) Presence of water molecules
(3) Highly condensed quartz particles
(4) All of the above
4. Astrophysicists, in October 2011, announced to have detected 150 supernovas. a record-breaking number in the Subaru Deep Field which is
(1) A full moon sized patch of sky
(2) Includes 12 of the most ancient and distant ones
(3) It was studied by the Tel Aviv University
(4) All of the above
5. Planetary scientists at the University of Texas at Austin, in October 2011, discovered what they claimed is an unusual multiple-planet solar system containing a 'super-Earth and two Neptune-sized planets orbiting in resonance with each other. Which NASA spacecraft was used to discover the multi -planet system?
(1) Voyager (2) Explorer
(3) Kepler (4) Galileo
6. A six ton NASA science satellite crashed to Earth in September 2011, in the Pacific Ocean. The Upper Atmosphere Research Satellite (UARS) ended years in orbit with a suicidal plunge into the atmosphere. When was it launched ?
(1) 1989 (2) 1991
(3) 1996 (4) 2001
7. NASA chief Charles Bolden, in September 2011, made the announcement of the design for the Space Launch System (SLS), which the space agen cy touted as the most powerful rocket since which rocket put U.S. astronauts on the Moon?
(1) Saturn V (2) Saturn III (3) Saturn VII (4) Saturn I
8. Indian Space Research Organisation's rocket polar satellite launch vehicle (PSLV), on October 12, 2011, scored yet again by launching the MeghaTropiques and three other satellites. Megha-Trbpiques is the weather satellite of
(1) India-France
(2) India-US
(3) India-Russia
(4) India-Singapore •
9. Which of the following satellites is/are correct regarding the satellites launched by the Indian Space Research. Organisation's rocket polar satellite launch vehicle, PSLV, in Oc tober 2011?
(a) The PSIN-C18 weighs 230 tonnes and stands 44 metres tall.
(b) The four satellites weighed 1,042.6 kg.
(c) India has become only the
second country to launch
such a mission --- the first
being a US-Japan com-
bined mission in 1997. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only b
(4) All of the above
10. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Jugnu satellite?
(a) It is a nano-satellite dev eloped by engineers at the ITT-Kanpur, under guidance of scientists at ISRO.
(b) It also aims to test GPS system in satellite system and test MEMS (Intertial Measurement Unit) in space.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only a
(2) Only
(3) Neither a nor b
(4) Both a and b
11. Which of the following statements regarding Indian Space Research Organisation and its rocket polar satellite launch vehicle, PSLV‘ is /are correct?
(1) PSLV has launched 53 satellites
(2) PSLV has launched 27 foreign payloads
(3) Megha-Tropiques, with its circular orbit inclined 20 degrees to the equator, will enable climate research and aid scientists seeking to refine prediction models
(4) All of the above
12. Which rocket carried China's first space labofatory, Tiangong-1, was launched from the Jiuquan spaceport in the Gobi Desert on Septembet 29, 2C11?
(1) Long March
(2) Small Step
(3) Long Leap
(4) Middle Kingdom
13. A Russian Soyuz-2 rocket on October 2, 2011, launched a navigation satellite, in the first launch since a freighter carried by the flagship vehicle crashed into Earth in August 2011. What is the name of the satellite?
(l) crt-k:,,, (2) Bukharin
(3) GLOIASS (4) RUSNASS
14. European 3pace Agency (ESA) Scientists in October 2011 announced that Venus has an ozone layer. The thin layer, hundreds of times less dense than the Earth's, was discovered by which European Space Agency spacecraft?
(1) Darwin (2) Hubble
(3) Venus (4) Luna
15. New observations ir. October 2011 confirmed that Eris, the dwarf planet whose discovery got Pluto kicked out of the
planet club, is almost exactly the same size' as Pluto - and May be a hlL 6rnaller. When was Pluto kicked oui. of the planet club?
(1) 2005 (2; 2006
(3) 2008 (4) 2009
16. A new and powerful telescope was reported in October 2011 that it was -being used by NASA astronomers for studying the atmospheres of planets and the formation of stars. However, unlike most of the space agency's telescopes, the Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA) flies around mounted on a
(1) Air Force One
(2) Boeing 747 jet
(3) Air Bus 360
(4) U.S. Bomber Jets
17. A Soyuz rocket lifted off on October 21. 2011, on its maiden flight from Europe's space base, carrying the first two satellites in the Galileo geopositioning system from Kourou in French ,Guiana. The launch marked an unprecedented step in space cooperation, being the first by the veteran rocket beyond Russia's historic bases at
(1) Chelyabinsk
(2) Plesetsk and Baikonur
(3) Minsk and Gorki
(4) All of the above
18. The world's highest webcam, the solar-powered camera, was installed at 18,618 feet on, a smaller mountain facing the Everest in the Nepalese Himalayas, beaming live images of Mount Everest to scientists studying the effects of climate change on the planet's tallest peak. What is the name of that mountain?
(1) Kala. Patthar
(2) Shiv Parbat
(3) Dcv Ghar
(4) Darshan Parbat
19. Which of the following institutions come under Indian IiiiUative for uravita-tionalwave Observations (indiG0) which was in news in October 2011?
(1) Inter-University for Astronomy and Astrophysics (1UCAA) and Institute fer Plasma Research (IPR)
(2) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) and Raman Research
tute (RRI)
(3) Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RR CAT)
(4) All of the above
20. The entire DNA sequence of a woman who lived to -115 was pieced together by scientists. The woman, who was the oldest in the world at the time of, her death, had the mind of someone decades younger and no signs of dementia, said the experts of which country in October 2011?
(1) The Netherlands
- (2) Denmark
(3) South Africa
(4) Ireland
21. The largest virus yet discovered, called Megavirus chilensis was in October 2011 isolated from ocean water pulled up off the coast of
(1) Chile
(2) Mauritius
(3) New Zealand
(4) Ivory Coast
22. The University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad, announced to have developed two varieties of wheat for making bread in October 2011— one is resistant to the deadly Ug99 disease and another that can help combat malnutrition. The varieties are
(1) UAS-404 and UAS- 428
(2) UAS-304 and UAS- 328
(3) UAS-304 and UAS- 428
(4) UAS-204 and UAS- 328
Buisness Studies India
L Britain based BP in Septern- I bet 2011 said the output from I the KG-D6 gas fields, in which I it has a stake, could rise only in 2014 after the new fields in the area were brought into production.
(1) 1 0 per cent
(2) 20 per cent
(3) 30 per Cent
(4) 40 per cent
Huawei in September 2011 announced its entry into the enterprise business solutions market in India that would provide solutions for IP, cornmunicatiOns and technology,- and IT businesses and
es. It is based in
(1) Japan
(2) South Korea
(3) China
(4) Singapore,
3_ NTPC in September 201.1. tied up a syndicated loan worth Rs.2„34 I crore from a consortium of Indian banks for its 390-MW thermal power project in Bihar. 'Where is this plant coming up?
(1) Barauni.
(2) Muzallarpu r
(3) Katihar
(4) Saharsa
4, GAIL (India) announced in September 2011 its decision to buy 20 per cent stake in a shale gas area operated by Carrizo Oil and Gas Inc in the U.S. for $95 million. Under the deal. GAIL will pay $63.7 in cash to Carrizo and bear $31.3 million of the Houston-based firm's future costs to develop the area in the Eagle Ford de-- posits in•
( I) Ohio
(2) California
(3) Dako
(4) Texas*
5. Bharti Airtel, on September 29. 2011, entered into an agreement with Nokia Siemens Networks (NSN) to expand its 20 (GSM/EDGE) networks and deploy 3G networks in Al rican countries. What is the number of countries in which the expansion will take place? ( 1 ) Five
(2) Seven
(3) Nine
(4) Eleven
6. The Department of Posts (I)oP) in September 2011 tied up with U.S.-based MoneyGram International to offer money transfer solutions to Indians living abroad. Initially. the service will be available in 100 post offices in
(1) Delhi
(2) Pt mjab
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) All of the above
7. And Ambani-owned Reliance Power in October 2011 announced to earn Rs.2,000 crore by trading carbon credits from its Ultra Mega Power project (UMPP) in Jharkhand in the first ten years of its operations. Which is that project?
(1) Kodarma
(2) Tilaiya
(3.) Bokaro
(4) Jamshedpur
8. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh in October 2011 cleared the appointment of as the Chairman and Managing Director of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation.
(1) Nail Munjal
(2) Praveer Tiwary
(3) Sudhir Vasudeva
(4) Ashok Bansal
9. Wind power company Suzlon Energy on October 5. 2011, bagged an order to supply 17 units of 1.5 MW wind turbines from GAIL for its project. The power generated from this project would be sold to a local power distribution company under a long-term power purchase agreernenk:(PPA) at the fixecIHpreferential feed-in Ian ff,
(1) Gujarat
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Karnataka
(4) Maharashtra
10. M which of the following plaees was the world's cheapest tablet. PC, named Aakash, costing R.s.2,276, launched on October 5, 2011?
(1) New Delhi
(2) New York
(3) Bangalore
(4) Mumhai
11. The United States Bureau of
• Labour Statistics (BLS) in Oc.- tober 201 I announced in its jobs report for September that non-farm payroll employment edged up by 103,000 although the unemployment .rate held at
(1) 8.3 per cent
(2) 9.1 per cent
(3) 10.7 per cent
(4) 9.6 per cent
12. Power Finance Corporation in October 2011 started the sale process for tax-saving infrastructure bonds and tax-free bonds worth Rs. 11,900 crore. It has received regulatory apnroval for medium term note-
(1) $1 billion
(2) 81.25 billion
(3) $1.50 billion
(4) $1.75 billion
13. MRF crossed the Rs.1.0,000- crore turnover mark on October 10, 201 1, becoming the first in the Indian tyre industry to do _so in any financial year. What was the factor behind this spectacular feat? (a) 'Inverted import duty struc-
ture' on natural rubber
(D) Low import duty on finished tyres
'Select the correct answer us-lug the codes given below:
(1) Both a and b
(2) Only a
(3) Only b
(4) Neither a nor b
14. Anil Ambani-owned Reliance Capital in October 2011 completed the sale of a 26 per cent stake in its life insurance venture Reliance Lite to Japan's Nippon Life for over Rs.3,000 crore. Reliance Capital has interests in
(1) Telecom
(2) Power and entertainment
(3) Infrastructure businesses
(4) All of the above
15. Which of the following compaflieS was/were asked by the Se • curates Appellate Tribunal (SAT) to refund the money raised through the optionally fully convertible debentures (OFCDs) to investors within six weeks on October 18, 2011?
(a) Sahara India Real Estate Corporation (now known as Sahara Commodity Services Corporation Ltd.).
(b) Sahara Housing Investment Corporation.
(c) Reliance World
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Both a and b
(2) Both b and c
(3) Both a and c
(4) All of the above
16. Who among the following was conferred the ABLF woman of power award' by the Asian Business Leadership Forum, in New Delhi in October 2011?
(1) Hind Bahwan
(2) Seema Solanki
(3) Roopa Thapriyal
(4) Anuja Kedia
17. IDBI Mutual Fund, the wholly-owned subsidiary of IDBI Bank, launched an open-ended gold exchange traded fund (14.TF) for retail investors in October 2011,, Which of the following is/are correct regard-
ing this fund?
(a) The fund is the first gold offering by the IDBI Group.
b) ItVoil 'invest in .physical gold and .1 rack gold prices.
(c) The benchmark for the liind svonld be the domestic price of gold.
Select t1-1('. correct answer us-
ing the codes given below: ( 1) Both a and
(2) All Of the above
(3) Both. :a and b
(4) Only c
18. Bharti Enterprisrs, the parent company of- Airtel, floated a new joint veiituf..c with inter net firm _SoltBank Corp on October 20. 2011-, h)r offering mobile internef. in In dia. In Which eountry is the So ftBank Corp.b; is,e(1? • -
(1) Eiixenihourg
(2) Portugal,.
(3) Japan
(4) China
19, Base Corporation, in October 2011, announced to set. up Asia's big,gest battery plant in Tamil Nadu with an investment of Rs.432 criTire that will become operational in 2013. At 'which of the following places will this plant come up?
(I) Chennai (2) Hosur
(3)Salem (4) Madurai
20. The net profit of Cairn Indio was, in petober- 201.1 , announced to have. halved to Rs.763 crore in the cluarter ended September 30, 2011. al ter it accotmled for pavment of royalty on mains( :iv oilfields in
(1) (.3i.i.la1Ta
(2)-Andhra Pradt:(1
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Assam
ANSWERS
I. (3) 2. (3) 3,(2) 4.(4)
5. (2) 6. (4) 8 (3)
12. (1)
9. (3) 10. (l)j 11.
18. (3) 13. (1)
17..(2) 20. (3)
AGRICULTURE Questions
1. As per data released by the Tea Board on October 3, 2011, tea production went up by three per cent to 127 million kg in August 2011, while exports registered an increase of to 19.42 million kg during the month.
(1) 5 per cent
(2) 10 per cent
(3) 15 per cent
(4) 20 per cent
2. Agriculture Minister Sharad Pawar announced on October 13, 2011, that wheat produc-
tion is expected to cross
to set a new record in the on-
going 2011-12 crop year
(1) 66 million tonnes
(2) 86 million tonnes
(3) 96 million tonnes
(4) 106 million tonnes
3. According to a NABARD re lease on October 6, 2011_ loans disbursed to State Governments by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) crossed the Rs.1 lakh crore mark. The loans were for creating
(1) Water wells
(2) Rural infrastructure
(3) Irrigation facilities
(4) Power generation
4, What was the extent of capital infusion in NABARD (National Bank fore Agriculture and Rural Development) approved by the Union Cabinet, on October 25, 2011, over a two-year period to help it in mobilising higher resources from the market?
(1) Rs. 1,000 crore
(2) Rs. 2,000 crore
(3) Rs.3,000crore
(4) Rs. 5,000 crore
5. S. Ayyappan, Director General, Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR), and Secretary, Department of Agricultural Research and Education. Government of India. on October 24, 2011, announced that sugarcane production in the country has gone up from 526 million tonnes to
(1) 620 million tonnes
(2) 715 million tonnes
(3) 780 million tonnes
(4) 810 million tonnes
64The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on October 25, 201 1. approved the setting up of how many new inega food park projects in addition to the 15 ongoing projects under the Int rast roc tore Development Scheme involving a government grant of Rs.787.50 crore?
(1) Five
(2) Ten
(3) Fi fteen
(4) Twen ty- five
7. Under the guidelines issued by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs regarding mega food parks in October 2011. each mega food park must
(1) Benefit at least 6,000 farm. ers / producers directly
(2) Benefit 25,000-30,000 farmers indirectly
(3) Generate about. 4-0,000 direct and indirect jobs
(4) All of the above
8. The Chairman of the Empowered Group of Ministers on Food Pranab Mukherjee approved decision to provide an additional 19.80 lakh tonnes of subsidised food--grains to backward districts in 27 States and Union Territories. How many districts are there?
I) 69 districts
(2) 96 districts
(3) 174 districts
(4) 200 districts
ANSWERS
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3)
5.1:3) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (3)
India General Knowledge Questions
14. With reference to the Diwali bonanza° package for exporters, announced by the Union ministry of Commerce in October 2011, which sector was given duty credit under Market Linked Focus Product Scheme (ML14-13S) for export to the U.S. and Europe?
(1) Apparel
(2) Spices
(3) Leather
(4) All of the above.
15. With reference to the visit of Vietnamese President Truong Tan Sang to India in October 2011, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) He invited Indian business and technical expertise in sectors such as healthcare, oil and gas, manufacturing, agro-industry, pharma-ceuticals, automotive. IT, shipping and ports, electrical consumer appliances, education and road infrastructure.
(b) Vietnam's exports to India crossed $1 billion in 2010- 11, a jump of 92 per cent over the previous year and India's exports to Vietnam also increased to $2.6 billion.
(c) Beginning 2010, Vietnam
has implemented a 10-year
long modernisation policy. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Both a and b
(2) Only c
(3) Only a
(4) All of the above
16. In accordance with the Foreign Trade Policy (Frp) unveiled in New Delhi in October 2011, the Director General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) announced that
to commemorate 25 years of partnership?
Inter national Monetary Fund
(2) World Bank
(3) Asian Development Bank
(4) Bank of New York
10. Commerce Secretary Rahul Khullar, on October 12, 2011, released the provisional data of India's exports and imports for the month of September 2011 in New Delhi. As per the data even as exports continued to maintain a 'robust growth', registering a
growth at $24.80 billion despite downturn in the U.S. and eurozone.
(1) 16.8 per cent
(2) 24.3 per cent
(3) 36.3 per cent
(4) 38.5 per cent
11. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Videsh Ltd. (OVL), the overseas arm of ONGC, on october 12, 2011, inked an agreement with Vietnam's national oil company to jointly explore for oil and gas in South China sea in Vietnam, India and third countiles.
(1) VietnamOil
(2) PetroVietnam
(3) Oil Vietnam
(4) PetroViet
12. Union Commerce and Industry Minister Anand Sharma, on October 13, 2011, announced a package for exporters in New Delhi, taking the total "Diwali bonanza" to Rs.1,700 crore, in a bid to cushion exporters from slowdown in the U.S. and 'Europe. What was the amount of this package?
(1) Rs, 250-crore
(2) Rs. 675-crore
(3) Rs. 900-crore
(4) Rs. 1200-crore
13. In the package for exporters announced by the government in October 2011, shipments to Latin America, Africa and CIS regions were announced to be eligible for additional one per
it had introduced a higher kvel of encrypted Digital Sig-- nature.
(1) 1636 bit
(2) 2048 bit
(3) 2252 bit
(4) 2442 bit
17. Which of the following features of India-Turkey trade relations surfaced during Vice-President Hamid Ansari's visit to the latter in October 2011?
(a) Trade has more than dou bled in the past five years. from $1.5 billion in 2005 to $4 billion in 2010.
(b) Exports have become increasingly diverse on both sides.
(c) For the current calendar year, the -bilateral trade is expected to touch $6,5-7 billion, surpassing the target of $5 billion the two governments *set for 2012.
Select the correct answer us-
ing the codes given below:
(1) All of the above
(2) Both a and c
(3) Only b
(4) Both ID and c
IS. During the India visit of Myanmar President U Theirs Sein in October 2011 rildia sought to consolidate its ties by offering an additional line of credit. What is the amount of this credit?
(1) $100million
(2) $250 million
(3) $500 million
(4) $1000 million
19. The India-Brazil-South Africa (IBSA) Surnrnit that was held in South Africa in October 2011, tasked the Working Group on Trade and Investment to examine all issues related to trade holistically, including issues relating to
(1) Non-tariff barriers
(2) Maritime and air links
(3) Opportunities for investments
(4) All of the above
20. Which of the following deci sions was made by the IndiaBrazil-South Africa (II3SA) Summit that was held in South Africa in October 2011?
(a) To set up a technical team under the IBSA's working group on trade and investment to reconcile trade data and devise a common reporting format.
(b) The South African and Indian trade ministers decided to enter into long-term contracts for purchase of raw materials and commodities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Both a and b
(2) Neither a nor b
(3) Only 13
(4) Only a
21. Which of the following aspects of India-Afghanistan trade relations was highlighted by Afghanistan Trade and Industry Minister Anwar Ul Hag Ahady who visited India in October 2011?
(1) The bilateral trade between the two nations stood at $557.81 million in 2010-11.
(2) To enhance the bilateral trade, Mr. Aha.dy said trade between the two must be routed through Wagah border instead of Karachi, which is costly.
(3) India imported 75 tonnes of Afghan apples a week at the peak of the season in 2010.
(4) All of the above
22. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and his visiting Nepali counterpart Baburam Bhattarai, on October 21, 2011, formalised the long pending Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA), which commits one State to providing compensation to commercial entities, whose
www.bookstree.in
country of origin is the other and applies particularly in cases of
(1) Wars
(2) National emergency
(3) Armed conflict
(4) All of the above
23. With reference to the Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) between India and Nepal which was signed in New Delhi in October 2011, which of the fol lowing is/are its important provisions?
(1) Investments from either country in the territory of the other country are to be accorded 'National Treatment' and 'Most Favoured Nation' treatment.
(2) It provides for elaborate dispute resolution mechanisms between investors and the government concerned, and between governments, including international arbitration.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
24. The Union Cabinet on October 25, 2011, approved a proposal to increase India's contribution to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to make it one of the largest shareholders in the multilateral lending agency. What is its rank among the largest shareholders after this approval?
(1) Third
(2) Fifth
(3) Eighth
(4) Tenth
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
